Help me study for my Sociology class. I’m stuck and don’t understand.
1. According to the text’s discussion of the basic approaches to social research,
a. some approaches are more scientific than others.
b. experimentation is the only truly scientific approach to social research.
c. quantitative approaches are superior to qualitative approaches.
d. there are more than two dozen distinctive approaches.
e. each approach has its own strengths and weaknesses.
2. The ultimate goal of scientific inquiry is to produce knowledge in the form of
a. factual data.
c. technological advances.
d. new discoveries.
3. Which of the following sequences best describes the inductive logic of inquiry?
a. theory data hypothesis
b. data theory hypothesis
c. data empirical pattern theory
d. theory hypothesis data
e. empirical pattern hypothesis theory
4. Scientists apply the deductive logic of inquiry when they
a. show how a hypothesis follows from a theory.
b. infer empirical patterns from data.
c. formulate a theory to account for empirical patterns.
d. infer the validity of a theory from a set of data.
5. Which statement most accurately describes scientific knowledge or theory?
a. It is the best understanding that we have been able to produce thus far.
b. When perfected, it is a statement of what is ultimately real.
c. A theory is accepted as “scientific” when objective tests confirm its predictions.
d. Theory in a scientific discipline is essentially an inventory of the currently most accurate predictions.
6. According to current ethical standards, such as those of the APA and ASA, deception is disallowed under which of the
a. The study involves substantial risk of harm or distress.
b. There is no guarantee of obtaining statistically significant results.
c. Divulging the use of deception might offend participants.
d. The topic of the study involves illegal or dishonest behavior.
7. In studies in which research participants’ identities are known to the researcher, the principal way to protect their
privacy is to
a. ensure anonymity.
b. ensure confidentiality.
c. ensure informed consent.
d. back up the data.
8. A professor doing research on deviant behavior asks the students in her classes to fill out an anonymous self-report
questionnaire dealing with their use of alcohol and nonprescription drugs. In what way is this study ethically problematic?
a. Studies of immoral behavior are inherently unethical.
b. Anonymity may not be sufficient to protect privacy.
c. Authorities may find out the names of the drug users and report them to the police.
d. Participation is not voluntary.
9. Consider the following hypothesis: Members of the Congress who belong to the same political party as the president
are more likely to vote for legislation supported by the president than congressional members who belong to a different
party. The unit of analysis implied by this hypothesis is
b. legislative vote.
c. the political party.
d. the individual member of Congress.
10. Suppose you hypothesize that among college students women consume alcoholic beverages less often than men.
The independent variable is
a. women students.
b. college students.
d. frequency of alcohol consumption.
11. A study of gender differences in the values of U.S. adolescents found that females were more likely than males to
express concern for the well-being of others. This difference was the same across all social class groupings. In this study,
the dependent variable is __________, and a control variable is __________.
a. gender; social class
b. concern for others; social class
c. concern for others; gender
d. social class; gender
12. If an empirical relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is maintained when the effects
of all antecedent variables are controlled or held constant, the relationship is
13. In qualitative research, deciding what and whom to observe
a. is the first and foremost consideration in research design.
b. may occur after a researcher begins to gather data.
c. usually involves random selection.
d. depends on how broadly a researcher aims to generalize his or her results.
14. A researcher interested in measuring religiosity decides to ask respondents how often they pray and how often they
listen to religious programs on the radio. These questions represent the researcher’s attempt to
a. provide a conceptual definition of the concept.
b. refine the meaning of the concept.
c. specify empirical indicators.
d. assess the quality of the researcher’s operational definition.
15. A variable’s level of measurement indicates the
a. number of questions used to measure the variable.
b. number of variable categories.
c. kinds of comparisons that can be made between cases in different variable categories.
d. degree of correspondence between conceptual and operational definitions.
16. A survey question measuring frequency of exercise asks respondents, “On how many of the past 7 days did you
exercise or participate in sports activities?” The answer categories are 0, 1 – 3, 3 – 5, 5 or more. This set of categories is
a. exhaustive but not mutually exclusive.
b. mutually exclusive but not exhaustive.
c. both exhaustive and mutually exclusive.
d. neither exhaustive nor mutually exclusive.
17. If you measured age by calculating the difference between the year a respondent was interviewed and the year the
respondent was born, then your level of measurement would be __________; if you measured age by placing people in
one of four categories (18 and under, 19–39, 40–59, 60 and over), then your level of measurement would be __________.
a. ratio; ratio
b. ratio; interval
c. ratio; ordinal
d. ordinal; ordinal
18. Survey estimates of church attendance based on self-reports are very stable, as respondents tend to give consistent
answers. Observations of church attendance indicate, however, that it is about one-half the level reported in surveys. This
suggests that, as a measure of church attendance, self-reported attendance is
a. reliable but not valid.
b. valid but not reliable.
c. neither reliable nor valid.
d. both reliable and valid.
19. Measurement theory equation indicates that the observed score is a function of:
a. the measured score minus the validity
b. the true score, systematic error, and random error
c. the concept minus reliability
d. the true score, the concept and systematic error
20. Knowledge of the sampling distribution of a statistic enables researchers to
a. draw a smaller sample than ordinarily would be necessary.
b. estimate the probable margin of error of a sample statistic.
c. calculate the population value.
d. calculate the difference between a population value and a sample estimate.
21. The two main reasons for using stratified sampling are to __________ and to __________.
a. decrease the margin of error; increase the number of cases in particular subgroups
b. decrease sampling costs; decrease the margin of error
c. analyze the effects of the stratified variable; increase the number of cases in particular subgroups
d. decrease sampling costs; analyze the effects of the stratified variable
22. What are two of the most important considerations in determining an appropriate sample size?
a. size of the population; complexity of the sampling design
b. available resources; size of the population
c. available resources; desired precision
d. desired precision; size of the population
23. Which of the following is a source of coverage error?
a. an incomplete sampling frame
b. refusals to cooperate
c. unreturned questionnaires
d. random selection processes
24. If the researcher is unable to obtain a list of the population or members of the population cannot be identified easily,
then he or she must use a
a. very large sample.
b. representative sample.
c. probability sample.
d. nonprobability sample.
25. You need a sample of 25 students to interview for a study of attitudes toward intercollegiate athletics, and so you
interview the first 25 students to enter the campus center on a Monday morning. What kind of sample is this?
a. convenience sample
b. purposive sample
c. snowball sample
d. simple random sample
26. How does the manipulation of the independent variable in an experiment strengthen inferences about cause and effect?
a. It eliminates the effects of most extraneous variables.
b. It establishes the time order of the events (or variables).
c. It proves that a causal relationship exists.
d. It determines that the observed association is nonspurious.
27. Which of the following procedures is designed to satisfy participants’ suspicions about the purpose of an experiment?
b. cover story
c. acquisition of informed consent
d. manipulation check
28. Experiments tend to be __________ in internal validity and __________ in external validity.
a. low; low
b. low; high
c. high; low
d. high; high
29. Which of the following procedures is intended to ensure or enhance a study’s internal validity?
b. random assignment
c. random sampling
30. Which of the following is true of the experimental approach to social research?
a. It is used almost exclusively for explanatory, hypothesis-testing purposes.
b. It is the most common methodological approach in sociology.
c. It typically uses simple random sampling to select participants.
d. It affords less control over extraneous variables than other research approaches.
31. Which of the following is true of open-ended questions?
a. They work best in questionnaire surveys where respondents have more time to respond.
b. They are easier to analyze than closed-ended questions.
c. They can provide in-depth understanding.
d. They work best in structured interviews.
32. Suppose you hypothesize that the more sociology courses a student takes, the more sensitive he or she becomes to
the needs of others. You then ask a random sample of students at your college how many sociology courses they have
taken and also ask them a set of questions measuring social sensitivity. Finally, you calculate the association between the
two variables. This is an example of a
a. laboratory experiment.
b. cross-sectional survey.
c. longitudinal survey.
33. To determine how much racial prejudice declined in the last half of the 20th Century, a researcher examines answers
to the same questions asked in several different polls conducted from the 1940s through 1990s. This is an example of a
a. cross-sectional survey.
b. trend study.
c. panel study.
34. Sample quality tends to be lowest in a __________ survey, and response rates generally are highest in a
a. face-to-face; telephone
b. face-to-face; mail
c. mail; face-to-face
d. mail; telephone
e. telephone; telephone
35. What is the major wording problem with the following question: “Do you approve of the irresponsible person who
would drive after having several drinks?”? (Box 8.2)
a. inappropriate vocabulary
b. leading question
c. lack of precision
36. What is the major wording problem with the following question: “How satisfied are you with the number and fairness
of the tests in this course?”? (Box 8.2)
a. inappropriate vocabulary
b. leading question
c. insensitive wording
d. lack of precision
37. What is a serious weakness that surveys share with experiments?
a. susceptibility to reactive measurement effects
b. use of convenience samples
c. limited number of variables that can be studied
d. frequent use of deception
38. Reflexivity in qualitative research refers to
a. the process of understanding others’ actions from their point of view.
b. sympathetic understanding based on a disavowal of one’s own beliefs.
c. a researcher’s reflection on how his or her personal characteristics influence the research process.
d. a researcher’s reflexive or spontaneous reactions to people and events.
39. The most important consideration in selecting a group or setting for field research is that
a. it should speak to the researcher’s theoretical or substantive interests.
b. the researcher should have no prior connection or experience with those in the setting.
c. it should be easily accessible.
d. it should allow for the ready development of rapport.
40. In which one of the following settings is a field researcher most likely to have to negotiate with one or more gatekeepers to gain access?
a. public restroom
b. subway train
d. lobby of a country club
41. What are the two primary types of questions in in-depth interviews?
a. main questions and probes
b. background questions and topical questions
c. closed-ended questions and open-ended questions
d. prepared questions and spontaneous questions
42. By virtue of its strengths, qualitative research would work best for addressing which one of the following research questions?
a. Do feelings of guilt increase the likelihood that someone will help others?
b. Are men more likely than women to donate blood?
c. How do homeless people survive on the streets?
d. Does the incidence of domestic abuse increase during an economic recession?
43. Which way of summarizing textual data identifies types and dimensions of concepts?
b. data matrix
d. flow chart
44. Consistent with the aims of grounded theory, theoretical sampling is used to
a. select research sites relevant to the theoretical aims of the research.
b. select cases that are likely to be theoretically rich.
c. select observations or interviewees that theoretically maximize variability.
d. select observations or interviewees to develop aspects of an emerging theory.
45. The object of narrative analysis is to
a. use observations and interviews to create a narrative of a group or event.
b. examine the structure and meaning of stories derived from interviews and other sources.
c. create a single story line from divergent accounts of the same event.
d. use reflexivity to create a chronologically accurate analysis.
46. Users of existing statistics are well advised to
a. let the availability of data dictate the research question or hypothesis to be addressed.
b. carefully attempt to reconstruct the process by which the data were originally assembled.
c. so far as possible, restrict themselves to official data sources where the accuracy and consistency of the data can be assumed.
d. search for the best single indicator rather than rely on multiple indicators of a concept.
47. The analysis of existing data generally is superior to other approaches for all but which one of the following research
a. studying the past
b. understanding social change
c. studying properties of social structure
d. studying individual attitudes and behavior
48. Which of the following is the best example of a nonreactive measure of interpersonal attraction (liking)?
a. the amount of eye contact a person maintains with another
b. how much someone says he or she likes another
c. friends’ estimates of how much someone likes another
d. how long someone says he or she has known another
49. Which of the following is not an example of triangulation?
a. using three different questions to measure the same concept
b. replicating an experiment with a different manipulation of the independent variable
c. asking the same question of a large sample of respondents
d. using both experimentation and the analysis of existing data to test the same hypothesis
e. using a team of investigators in field research
50. Which basic approach to social research produces the strongest inferences about causal relationships?
b. survey research
c. qualitative research
d. analysis of existing data
51. Which basic approach to social research lends itself best to examining situations and experiences from the viewpoint
of the research participant or actor?
b. survey research
c. qualitative research
d. analysis of existing data
52. Which of the following is TRUE:
a. Qualitative analysis is a linear process that starts with data collection, moves to data preparation and coding, and
ends with analysis and interpretation.
b. Analyzing data is a search for both qualitative and quantitative patterns
c. As with outliers in quantitative data analysis, exceptions to patterns in qualitative data are treated as errors that
can be ignored.
d. Content analysis is a purely quantitative strategy while coding applies only to qualitative analysis.
e. All of the above.